A 75-year-old man arrives to the ED with abdominal pain. He has never experienced this before but reports having left-sided abdominal pain over the last 2 days that is relieved temporarily after defecation. He has a temperature of 101.2 ° F with a blood pressure of 142/ 88 mmHg and pulse of 88/ min. His laboratory examination is significant for a WBC of 14 × 103/ μL (normal 4.1- 10.9 × 103/ μL) with 10 % bands. CT imaging reveals focal sigmoidal wall thickening with significant paracolic inflammation. He was treated as an in-patient for 3 days and discharged home without complications. Which of the following is the most appropriate follow-up option?

(A) High-fiber diet alone

(B) CT scan 2 weeks after resolution

(C) Elective sigmoid colectomy

(D) Barium enema

(E) Colonoscopy